EK0-001자격시험, 225-030자격증자료

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시험 번호/코드: EK0-001
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시험 번호/코드: 225-030
시험 이름: CDIA+ Certification
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NO.1 The Business Service Provider (BSP) is:
A. Internet service developers that rents only its own proprietary applications via the Web.
B. A company that offers packaged software for lease online.
C. A service provider that packages a selection of applications for distribution online.
D. A specialized company that connects customers with PCs and browsers to the Internet.
Answer: B

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NO.2 .A collaborative Internet based network to link an enterprise with a specific group of its supplies
or customers is commonly referred to as a(n):
A. Internet
B. Extranet
C. CONet
D. Intranet
Answer: B

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NO.3 .A Web site offers daily news content for free, but has banners at the top of each page.
What business model is being used?
A. Store A does not have a physical location and sells a variety of products online.
B. Store B does not have a physical location and sells a specific type of product.
C. Store C has a physical location and a Web site. A variety of products are sold.
D. Store D has a physical location. A variety of products are sold.
Answer: A

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NO.4 .Incremental planning based on short term milestones, which is often used in E-Business, is
called:
A. True return on investment.
B. Trigger-point planning.
C. Trig's event planning.
D. Solid contingency planning.
Answer: B

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NO.5 .In E-Business, which of the following is the most common element in determining the
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A. Business financial status
B. Overall business model
C. Product availability
D. Product delivery
Answer: B

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NO.6 .What does the term "banner blindness" refer to?
A. The growing trend of adding interactivity to banner advertisement to increase their visibility.
B. The anonymous tracking of banner impressions and browsing behaviors across multiple sites.
C. The refusal of companies to acknowledge banner advertising as a valuable advertising
medium.
D. The growing trend of visitors completely ignoring banner advertisements.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which one of the following best describes spamming?
A. Authorized sending of e-mail to business and people who have agreed to receive your
message.
B. Unauthorized receiving of e-mails by businesses and people who have not agreed to receive
your messages.
C. Mail that comes through the post office rather than electronic format.
D. Unauthorized sending of e-mails to businesses and people who have not agreed to receive
your messages.
Answer: D

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NO.8 .Jenny has decided to make her online purchase of DVD movies from a particular retailer
because their site is easy to use and she can order quickly.
What decision criteria is she using?
A. Personal Service
B. Convenience
C. Value Proposition
D. Online Service
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: SY0-301
시험 이름: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam (SY0-301)
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NO.1 Which of the following devices would MOST likely have a DMZ interface?
A. Firewall
B. Switch
C. Load balancer
D. Proxy
Answer: A

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NO.2 Employee badges are encoded with a private encryption key and specific personal
information. The encoding is then used to provide access to the network. Which of the following
describes this access control type?
A. Smartcard
B. Token
C. Discretionary access control
D. Mandatory access control
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following MOST interferes with network-based detection techniques?
A. Mime-encoding
B. SSL
C. FTP
D. Anonymous email accounts
Answer: B

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NO.4 Use of a smart card to authenticate remote servers remains MOST susceptible to which of the
following attacks?
A. Malicious code on the local system
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Brute force certificate cracking
D. Distributed dictionary attacks
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is a hardware based encryption device?
A. EFS
B. TrueCrypt
C. TPM
D. SLE
Answer: C

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NO.6 In regards to secure coding practices, why is input validation important?
A. It mitigates buffer overflow attacks.
B. It makes the code more readable.
C. It provides an application configuration baseline.
D. It meets gray box testing standards.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A security administrator needs to update the OS on all the switches in the company. Which of
the following MUST be done before any actual switch configuration is performed?
A. The request needs to be sent to the incident management team.
B. The request needs to be approved through the incident management process.
C. The request needs to be approved through the change management process.
D. The request needs to be sent to the change management team.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following BEST describes a protective countermeasure for SQL injection?
A. Eliminating cross-site scripting vulnerabilities
B. Installing an IDS to monitor network traffic
C. Validating user input in web applications
D. Placing a firewall between the Internet and database servers
Answer: C

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NO.1 A company wants to track personnel using RFID with a resolution within 10 feet (3.1 meters). Which of
the following RFID systems would provide the BEST results?
A. Active Real Time Locating System (RTLS)
B. Passive ultra high frequency (UHF) RFID system with hand-held interrogators
C. Passive high frequency (HF) RFID system with interrogators at entry points
D. Global Positioning System (GPS)
Answer: A

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NO.2 All of the following are true of widely implemented "slap and ship" programs EXCEPT they:
A. make it difficult to optimize label application for the container.
B. are more susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) than in-line automatic applicators.
C. are lower in cost than application in manufacturing.
D. are more likely to break the bond between the antenna and the chip.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In a facility with several automated print and apply printers, cases frequently get to the palletizer without
RFID labels. One way to correct this is to:
A. install an interrogation zone down stream from the labeler with a reject system.
B. have an interrogator on the palletizer.
C. use better quality labels.
D. use a hand-held interrogator to scan for missing labels at end of production line.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following materials have absorptive properties in relation to ultra high frequency (UHF)?
(Select TWO).
A. Damp cardboard
B. Glass
C. Conductive liquids
D. Metal
Answer: AC

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NO.5 Which of the following technologies would provide the BEST read range when attached to a
corrugated metal freight container that is 40 feet (12.4 meters)?
A. Passive 13.56 MHz from a one watt interrogator/antenna
B. Passive 860 - 960 MHz from a 4 watt interrogator/antenna C. Active 433.92 MHz, operating at 10 mW
D. Active 2450 MHz, operating at 10 mW
Answer: C

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NO.6 Tags placed on small boxes uniformly stacked on a pallet are unreadable unless the pallet is rotated.
This is a symptom of tag:
A. propagation.
B. size.
C. shadowing.
D. polarity.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following conditions would be MOST likely to cause a ghost tag read?
A. The interrogator did not pass electronic product code (EPC) compliance testing.
B. There is a broken strap between the chip and the antenna on the tag.
C. There are too many tags within an interrogator zone.
D. There is RF interference in an interrogator zone.
Answer: D

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NO.8 An Electronic Product Code (EPC) Class 1 Gen 2 RFID system reads the EPC data from memory bank
zero, but the 64-bit EPC code is always zero. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the
problem?
A. The EPC code is stored in Bank 1.
B. The tag has been killed.
C. The EPC code was never written to the tag.
D. The access password is zero.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A new batch of tags is received for an existing system. When the new tags are introduced into the
system, the interrogation zones stop transmitting tag data. Which of the following is MOST likely the
source of the problem?
A. The new tags are all bad.
B. The new tags are the wrong type for the system.
C. A tag virus has been introduced by the new tags.
D. The interrogators have issued the kill command to the tags.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following RFID tags would be BEST for inconspicuous tagging of assets containing a
maximum of eight bytes of data and are inductively coupled?
A. Active 433.92 MHz tag with strategically installed fixed interrogators.
B. Passive 13.56 MHz tag that is affixed to the asset and camouflaged requiring continuous loop
interrogation.
C. Passive Gen 2 tag requiring line of sight backscatter interrogation.
D. Active 433.92 MHz tag requiring modulated backscatter interrogation.
Answer: B

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NO.11 It is important to know where an RFID inlay is located within a tag during printing because: (Select
TWO).
A. the inlay location directs the printer to print landscape or portrait.
B. the inlay sets the speed of the printer.
C. printing over the chip may cause damage.
D. timing from leading edge is critical to the encoding process.
Answer: CD

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NO.12 RFID media should be stored in:
A. electrostatic discharge (ESD) protected packaging.
B. metal containers.
C. rolls of ten.
D. the order that it was received.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Ideally, as a tag passes though the antenna read window it should be:
A. inside metal foil.
B. on the same plane as the antenna.
C. at least 30 feet (9.3 meters) from the antenna.
D. facing away from antenna.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Cases are going to be tagged and stored in a humid, high temperature area. Which of the following
types of labels would be needed?
A. Poly-coated with gum adhesive.
B. Direct thermal with gum adhesive.
C. Poly-coated with water base adhesive.
D. Paper with gum adhesive.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Desktop industrial RFID-enabled bar code printers handle an inoperative tag by:
A. sending an error to the host.
B. printing 'void' or some other marking on the label.
C. ejecting the label.
D. ignoring it and continuing.
Answer: B

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NO.16 When troubleshooting an interrogation zone, an operator observes that the interrogator is not
responding to external input or reading tags. The lights are on indicating it has power and network
connectivity. Which of the following would be the next step for the operator to take?
A. Replace the antenna cable.
B. Replace the interrogator.
C. Reboot the interrogator.
D. Reboot the antenna.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Loss of connection between an interrogator and the edgeware/middleware would result in which of the
following?
A. Only active RFID tag data would be processed.
B. No tag data would be processed.
C. Tag data would be sent directly to the Warehouse Management System (WMS).
D. Only interrogator status would be tracked.
Answer: B

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NO.18 When firmware upgrades become available, which of the following should the technician consider
FIRST?
A. How to install the upgrade.
B. When to schedule the upgrade.
C. Whether the upgrade can be downloaded from the internet.
D. The benefits of new upgrade.
Answer: D

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NO.19 While troubleshooting an interrogation zone, a technician discovers that the antenna wires have torn
free of their connectors. Which of the following would be the FIRST step for the technician to take?
A. Secure the cables so they cannot tear free again.
B. Crimp a new end on the cable.
C. Power down the interrogator.
D. Attach the repaired cable to the antenna.
Answer: C

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NO.20 For a corrugated case filled with liquor bottles containing metal lids, all of the following locations are
acceptable for optimizing the performance of a passive high frequency (HF) RFID smart label EXCEPT on
the: (Select TWO).
A. side near the bottom where there is the most amount of liquid.
B. side near the top where there is the least amount of liquid.
C. bottom where there is the most amount of glass.
D. top near the metal lids.
Answer: AD

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시험 번호/코드: 220-702
시험 이름: CompTIA (CompTIA A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition))
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NO.1 A user is working in a small office home office (SOHO), running Windows XP, and cannot connect to
the Internet. The office uses a router that is setup as a DHCP server. The technician types IPCONFIG in
the command prompt, the following appears:
IP address 0.0.0.0
Gateway 0.0.0.0
Subnet Mask 0.0.0.0
DNS 0.0.0.0
Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?
A. Network adapter drivers
B. Router settings
C. Network cable
D. Firewall
Answer: C

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NO.2 A technician wants to setup hardware RAID 5 for a Windows 7 computer to prevent data loss. In which
of the following locations would the technician MOST likely change the setting?
A. Disk Manager
B. Device Manager
C. Windows Boot DVD
D. The BIOS
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer requires a shock resistant mass storage device in their PC. Which of the following drives
should the technician install?
A. Hard disk
B. Solid state
C. Floppy
D. Tape
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer has a wireless router installed in their home office. The customer is having issues with
signal strength at the opposite end of the house. Which of the following is the BEST option to increase the
signal strength?
A. Install a high gain antennafocused towards the office wall
B. Run CAT5e cable to all of the roomsthat have poor signal strength
C. Install a wireless repeater at the far end of the house
D. Install a second wired router in the far end of the house
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following network modifications should be implemented to extend the wireless network
range and allow out-of-range users to share the Internet connection?
A. Create a new VLAN for the out-of-range users.
B. Add a wireless access point for the out-of-range users.
C. Upgrade the out-of-range users
SSID searching software.
D. Enable network sharing on the users
computers that are within range.
Answer: B

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NO.6 The user cannot access some Internet websites, but can connect to resources inside the local network.
The technician successfully uses the ping command to test the user s connectivity. Which of the following
commands can the technician run NEXT to troubleshoot the issue?
A. net /?
B. ipconfig /flushdns
C. netstat -r
D. nbtstat -R
Answer: B

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NO.7 A user is connecting to the Internet using a DSL modem. The user installs a new wireless router and is
unable to connect remotely to their computer, using Remote Desktop. The user had no issues connecting
remotely before the wireless router was installed.
Which of the following is the problem?
A. Wireless router drivers are needed.
B. Port forwarding is not setup.
C. The wireless router is defective.
D. VPN is not setup correctly.
Answer: B

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NO.8 After powering on a workstation, an intrusion alert is displayed indicating that the case has been opened.
How would a technician reset the alert?
A. Change the setting in the registry
B. Change the setting in the BIOS
C. Change the setting in the DOS startup files
D. Change the setting in the Control Panel
Answer: B

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NO.9 A home user wants to setup a wireless network. Which of the following would be the MOST important
consideration?
A. Operating system type of the connected PCs
B. Location of the wireless router
C. Number of PCs that will access the network
D. Number of available Ethernet ports on the router
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following are encrypted protocols? (Select TWO).
A. TELNET
B. SSH
C. POP3
D. FTP
E. HTTPS
Answer: B,E

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NO.11 A computer running Windows 7 will not boot up. A user is receiving an ® I nva li d boo t d i s
error.
Which of the following is the cause of this error?
A. The BOOT.INI file is not found.
B. The Windows registry is corrupt.
C. There is a CD-ROM in the drive.
D. The floppy drive is disconnected.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following characteristics of Windows Gadgets is accurate?
A. Windows Gadgets are available in all versions of Windows since XP.
B. Windows Gadgets are part of the Sidebar in Windows Vista and Windows 7.
C. Windows Gadgets were introduced in Windows 7.
D. Windows Gadgets are part of the Sidebar in Windows Vista.
Answer: B

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NO.13 A technician plugs a USB device into the computer. The system tray displays a message that reports
the device is installed, but may not work properly. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the
message?
A. The device needs a firmware update.
B. The device needs an updated driver installed.
C. The plugged in device is too slow for the USB port speed.
D. The device is incompatible with the installed version of Windows.
Answer: B

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NO.14 A technician needs to change the process priority of a background program. Which of the following tools
is BEST for performing this function.?
A. MSCONFIG
B. Computer Management
C. Task Scheduler
D. Task Manager
Answer: D

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NO.15 A user powers up their desktop PC, and instead of booting up normally, the user is taken into the BIOS
setup.
Which of the following is the MOST likely problem?
A. The MBR is corrupt
B. NTLDR cannot be found by the system
C. A faulty CMOS battery
D. The BIOS requires a firmware update
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following will fix a laptop with dark irregular lines that run the width of the display in all
video modes?
A. Perform a System Restore
B. Replace the video capture card
C. Change the resolution to 800 x 600
D. Replace the LCD
Answer: D

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NO.17 Offline files and folders are available on which versions of Windows? (Select TWO).
A. Windows 7 Ultimate
B. Windows 7 Home Premium
C. Windows XP Home
D. Windows Vista Home Premium 64-bit
E. Windows XP Professional
Answer: A,E

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NO.18 Two users share the same Windows 7 computer. The first user creates a document intended to be
used by both users, and then logs off. The second user logs on and types the name of the document in
the Start menu, but the document is not found. Which of the following is the problem?
A. The document is set to hidden.
B. The document is locked.
C. The document was saved as a system document.
D. The document is owned by the first user.
Answer: D

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NO.19 A technician is replacing the motherboard on a laptop. Which of the following is the MOST important
step during the disassembly process?
A. Place all of the screws in a container with other parts.
B. Keep the power supply plugged in to ground the system.
C. Organize the screws and document the locations.
D. Use a magnetic tipped screwdriver to remove the screws.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following locations would a technician use to add a Windows 7 computer to a domain?
A. System Properties
B. Windows Defender
C. Network and Sharing Center
D. Device Manager
Answer: A

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NO.1 .A new advantage to consumer at click-and-mortar stores is:
A. The ability to use multiple credit cards.
B. Overnight delivery.
C. The ability to return online purchases to brick-and-mortar stored.
D. Longer warrantee periods.
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Which of the following is not a lesson learned from e-tailing?
A. Maintaining marginal profits on each sale.
B. Make sure your website performs well.
C. Establish branding whenever possible.
D. Focus on market share.
Answer: D

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NO.3 .Incremental planning based on short term milestones, which is often used in E-Business, is
called:
A. True return on investment.
B. Trigger-point planning.
C. Trig's event planning.
D. Solid contingency planning.
Answer: B

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NO.4 .What are three protocols that are part of the TCP/IP suite? (Choose three)
A. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
B. NetBEUI Protocol.
C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).
D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.5 .You E-Business site suffers from hacker attacks. You want to seek information on the
latest Internet security issues.
Which of the following organizations might provide you with the information?
A. Netscape
B. IANA
C. CERT
D. IEEE
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which one of the following best describes spamming?
A. Authorized sending of e-mail to business and people who have agreed to receive your
message.
B. Unauthorized receiving of e-mails by businesses and people who have not agreed to receive
your messages.
C. Mail that comes through the post office rather than electronic format.
D. Unauthorized sending of e-mails to businesses and people who have not agreed to receive
your messages.
Answer: D

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NO.7 .Jenny has decided to make her online purchase of DVD movies from a particular retailer
because their site is easy to use and she can order quickly.
What decision criteria is she using?
A. Personal Service
B. Convenience
C. Value Proposition
D. Online Service
Answer: B

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NO.8 .What are three ways to increase consumer awareness of a Web site? (Choose three)
A. Have links on other Web sites.
B. Submit information about your Web site to search engines.
C. Advertise on traditional media.
D. Utilize a value-added network.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.9 .Which of the following is not a lesson learned from e-tailing?
A. Maintaining marginal profits on each sale.
B. Make sure your website performs well.
C. Establish branding whenever possible.
D. Focus on market share.
Answer: D

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NO.10 .A collaborative Internet based network to link an enterprise with a specific group of its supplies
or customers is commonly referred to as a(n):
A. Internet
B. Extranet
C. CONet
D. Intranet
Answer: B

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NO.11 .What are the three basic components of E-Business trigger-point planning? (Choose three)
A. Business case
B. Application structure
C. Prioritization blueprint
D. Application implementation
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.12 What differentiates client/server applications from other types of
applications?
A. A telnet session to a web server.
B. Processing is divided between the requested and providing applications.
C. Reliance on relational database technology and dumb terminals.
D. Using a workstation to view remote data on a mainframe computer.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following is required for enabling SSL on the web server?
A. Shopping Cart Software
B. Digital Certificate
C. Internet Merchant Bank Account
D. Warehouse
E. Web hosting
Answer: B

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NO.14 .Which of the following provides a single point of access to network resources in your
E-Business infrastructure for your business partners?
A. Tree
B. Browser
C. Domain
D. Directory service
Answer: D

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NO.15 .In E-Business, which of the following is the most common element in determining the
pricing strategy for the business?
A. Business financial status
B. Overall business model
C. Product availability
D. Product delivery
Answer: B

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NO.16 .VPNsare most susceptible to what type of attacks?
A. Trojan
B. Sniffing
C. Man in the middle
D. Virus
E. DoS
Answer: C

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NO.17 .What does the term "banner blindness" refer to?
A. The growing trend of adding interactivity to banner advertisement to increase their visibility.
B. The anonymous tracking of banner impressions and browsing behaviors across multiple sites.
C. The refusal of companies to acknowledge banner advertising as a valuable advertising
medium.
D. The growing trend of visitors completely ignoring banner advertisements.
Answer: D

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NO.18 The Business Service Provider (BSP) is:
A. Internet service developers that rents only its own proprietary applications via the Web.
B. A company that offers packaged software for lease online.
C. A service provider that packages a selection of applications for distribution online.
D. A specialized company that connects customers with PCs and browsers to the Internet.
Answer: B

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NO.19 .An example of a click and mortar alliance would be a partnership between a(n)
A. Established traditional retailer and a Web community.
B. Web community and a trade association.
C. E-Marketplace and an Application Service Provider.
D. On-line storefront and an Internet Service Provider.
Answer: A

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NO.20 .A Web site offers daily news content for free, but has banners at the top of each page.
What business model is being used?
A. Store A does not have a physical location and sells a variety of products online.
B. Store B does not have a physical location and sells a specific type of product.
C. Store C has a physical location and a Web site. A variety of products are sold.
D. Store D has a physical location. A variety of products are sold.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Cell phones with network access and the ability to store data files are susceptible to which of the
following risks?
A. Input validation errors
B. SMTP open relays
C. Viruses
D. Logic bombs
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following tools was created for the primary purpose of reporting the services that are open
for connection on a networked workstation?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Port scanner
C. Password crackers
D. Vulnerability scanner
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following access control technologies provides a rolling password for one-time use?
A. RSA tokens
B. ACL
C. Multifactor authentication
D. PIV card
Answer: A

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NO.4 The security administrator needs to make a change in the network to accommodate a new remote
location. The new location will be connected by a serial interface, off the main router, through a
commercial circuit. This remote site will also have traffic completely separated from all other traffic. Which
of the following design elements will need to be implemented to accommodate the new location?
A. VLANs need to be added on the switch but not the router.
B. The NAT needs to be re-configured to allow the remote location.
C. The current IP scheme needs to be subnetted.
D. The switch needs to be virtualized and a new DMZ needs to be created
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following uses an RC4 key that can be discovered by eavesdropping on plain text
initialization vectors?
A. WEP
B. TKIP
C. SSH
D. WPA
Answer: A

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NO.6 When establishing a connection between two IP based routers, which of the following protocols is the
MOST secure?
A. TFTP
B. HTTPS
C. FTP
D. SSH
Answer: D

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NO.7 An administrator needs to limit and monitor the access users have to the Internet and protect the
internal network. Which of the following would MOST likely be implemented?
A. A heuristic firewall
B. DNS caching on the client machines
C. A pushed update modifying users' local host file
D. A content-filtering proxy server
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following tools limits external access to the network.?
A. IDS
B. VLAN
C. Firewall
D. DMZ
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following logical access control methods would a security administrator need to modify in
order to control network traffic passing through a router to a different network?
A. Configuring VLAN 1
B. ACL
C. Logical tokens
D. Role-based access control changes
Answer: B

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NO.10 An administrator wants to crack passwords on a server with an account lockout policy. Which of the
following would allow this without locking accounts?
A. Try guessing passwords slow enough to reset the bad count interval.
B. Try guessing passwords with brute force.
C. Copy the password file offline and perform the attack on it.
D. Try only real dictionary words.
Answer: C

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NO.11 USB devices with a virus delivery mechanism are an example of which of the following security threats?
A. Adware
B. Trojan
C. Botnets
D. Logic bombs
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following algorithms provides better protection against brute force attacks by using a
160-bit message digest?
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. LANMAN
D. NTLM
Answer: B

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NO.13 Upon opening the browser, a guest user is redirected to the company portal and asked to agree to the
acceptable use policy. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this to appear?
A. NAT
B. NAC
C. VLAN
D. DMZ
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is MOST likely to be an issue when turning on all auditing functions within a
system?
A. Flooding the network with all of the log information
B. Lack of support for standardized log review tools
C. Too much information to review
D. Too many available log aggregation tools
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following technologies is used to verify that a file was not altered?
A. RC5
B. AES
C. DES
D. MD5
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following is a malicious program used to capture information from an infected computer?
A. Trojan
B. Botnet
C. Worm
D. Virus
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following is the MOST secure authentication method?
A. Smartcard
B. Iris
C. Password
D. Fingerprints
Answer: B

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NO.18 When reviewing IDS logs, the security administrator notices many events pertaining to a "NOOP sled".
Which of the following attacks is occurring?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. SQL injection
C. Buffer overflow
D. Session hijacking
Answer: C

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NO.19 Mitigating security risks by updating and applying hot fixes is part of:
A. patch management.
B. vulnerability scanning.
C. baseline reporting.
D. penetration testing.
Answer: A

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NO.20 A user reports that each time they attempt to go to a legitimate website, they are sent to an
inappropriate website. The security administrator suspects the user may have malware on the computer,
which manipulated some of the user's files. Which of the following files on the user's system would need
to be checked for unauthorized changes?
A. SAM
B. LMhosts
C. Services
D. Hosts
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: LX0-101
시험 이름: CompTIA (CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] Exam 1)
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Q&A: 119 문항
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NO.1 CORRECT TEXT
What command with all options and/or parameters will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of
program apache2?
Answer: KILLALL-SSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-SUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-
SIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-USR1APACHE2

NO.2 CORRECT TEXT
The system configuration file named _______ is commonly used to set the default runlevel. (Please
provide the fill name with full path information).
Answer: /ETC/INITTAB

NO.3 The lspci command can display information about devices EXCEPT:
A. card bus speed (e.g. 66Mhz).
B. card IRQ settings.
C. card vendor identification.
D. card AGP rate (e.g. 1x, 2x, 4x).
E. card Ethernet MAC address.
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which of the following is the difference between the --remove and the --purge action with the dpkg
command.?
A. --remove removes the program, --purge also removes the config files.
B. --remove only removes the program, --purge only removes the config files.
C. --remove removes a package, --purge also removes all packages dependent on it.
D. --remove removes only the package file itself, --purge removes all files related to the package.
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator has just added a CD-ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to a system and added it to the
administrator's fstab. Typically the administrator can use which of the following commands to mount
media in that drive to /mnt/cdrom?
A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
B. mount /dev/cdrom
C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
D. mount /mnt/cdrom
E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom}
Answer: D

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NO.6 An administrator is planning a partition scheme for a new Linux installation. Which of the following
directories should the administrator consider for separate partitions? (Select THREE).
A. /etc
B. /home
C. /var
D. /lib
E. /tmp
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.7 Which of the following is the process ID number of the init program?
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. It is different with each reboot.
E. It is set to the current run level.
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator is looking for an executable file foo. Which of the following commands would search
for foo within directories set in the shell variable, PATH?
A. locate
B. which
C. find
D. query
E. whereis
Answer: B

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NO.9 An administrator wishes to kill a process with a PID of 123. Which of the following commands will allow
the process to "clean up" before exiting?
A. kill -1 123
B. kill -9 123
C. kill -15 123
D. kill -17 123
Answer: C

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NO.10 To what environment variable will an administrator assign or append a value if the administrator needs
to tell the dynamic linker to look in a build directory for some of a program's shared libraries?
A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH
Answer: C

CompTIA   LX0-101   LX0-101   LX0-101

NO.11 In the vi editor, which of the following commands will delete the current line at the cursor and the 16
lines following it (17 lines total)?
A. 17d
B. 17dd
C. 17x
D. d17d
E. 16d
Answer: B

CompTIA   LX0-101   LX0-101최신덤프

NO.12 In compliance with the FHS, in which of the following places are man pages typically found?
A. /usr/share/man
B. /opt/man
C. /usr/doc/
D. /var/pkg/man
E. /usr/local/man
Answer: A

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NO.13 Pressing the Ctrl-C combination on the keyboard while a command is executing in the foreground sends
which of following signal codes?
A. 1 (SIGHUP)
B. 2 (SIGINT)
C. 3 (SIGQUIT)
D. 9 (SIGKILL)
E. 15 (SIGTERM)
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following command lines would an administrator use to restrict the GNU find command to
searching a particular number of subdirectories?
A. --max-dirs
B. -dirmax
C. -maxdepth
D. -s
E. -n
Answer: C

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NO.15 All of the following commands will update the Modify timestamp on the file /tmp/myfile.txt EXCEPT:
A. file /tmp/myfile.txt
B. echo "Hello" >/tmp/myfile.txt
C. sed -ie "s/1/2/" /tmp/myfile.txt
D. echo -n "Hello" >/tmp/myfile.txt
E. touch /tmp/myfile.txt
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: SK0-003
시험 이름: CompTIA (CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam)
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Q&A: 436 문항
업데이트: 2014-01-19

IT인증시험은 국제적으로 인정받는 자격증을 취득하는 과정이라 난이도가 아주 높습니다. CompTIA인증 SK0-003시험은 IT인증자격증을 취득하는 시험과목입니다.어떻게 하면 난이도가 높아 도전할 자신이 없는 자격증을 한방에 취득할수 있을가요? 그 답은ITExamDump에서 찾을볼수 있습니다. ITExamDump에서는 모든 IT인증시험에 대비한 고품질 시험공부가이드를 제공해드립니다. ITExamDump에서 연구제작한 CompTIA인증 SK0-003덤프로CompTIA인증 SK0-003시험을 준비해보세요. 시험패스가 한결 편해집니다.

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NO.1 Which of the following is the minimum number of drives in an RAID 0 configuration?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: A

CompTIA   SK0-003   SK0-003기출문제

NO.2 Which of the following internal storage technologies has the HIGHEST single drive storage capacity?
A. SAS
B. SATA
C. Flash
D. SCSI
Answer: B

CompTIA   SK0-003   SK0-003

NO.3 Which of the following must be done to properly conduct testing of the data backup portion of a disaster
recovery plan?
A. Perform an integrity test of backup media.
B. Verify data on backup media can be read.
C. Verify that backups have occurred and were successful via the logs.
D. Restore backed up data to a test server.
Answer: D

CompTIA   SK0-003   SK0-003인증

NO.4 A user cannot access files on /deps/it directory, the administrator verifies permissions are set rw-------
for the directory. Which of the following actions need to be performed to only grant read access to the user
on the IT directory?
A. Set folder permissions to 760.
B. Set folder permissions to 770.
C. Set folder permissions to modify.
D. Set folder permissions to full control.
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator attempts to install the latest security patches for an older server. When the
administrator runs the patch installer, the install fails. The administrator tries again, and the installer fails
again. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this?
A. The administrator improperly configured the virtual memory settings on the server.
B. The administrator is using incorrect patch switches for the install.
C. The administrator is trying to install security patches for software that is not installed.
D. The administrator is trying to install patches that require hard drive encryption on the server.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following would be an advantage to using a blade server as opposed to a rack mount
server?
A. Blade servers allow for internal tape drives
B. Blade servers offer more rack density
C. Blade servers are typically faster
D. Blade servers allow for more RAM
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following expansion cards should be installed in a server to allow the server to connect to a
SAN via a fiber channel?
A. SATA
B. iSCSI
C. SCSI
D. HBA
Answer: D

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NO.8 Users report that they are unable to connect to a server. An administrator confirms that it is unreachable
across the network. Other administrators have been working in the server room throughout the day.
Which of the following is the NEXT step the administrator should take?
A. Verify the configuration of the connected port on the network switch.
B. Reboot the server.
C. Install a new NIC on the server.
D. Verify that network cables are connected.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following concepts is described as multiple logical subnets traversing the same physical
network?
A. DHCP
B. VLANs
C. DMZ
D. VPNs
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following are benefits of the HCL? (Select TWO).
A. Enhanced stability
B. Vendor supported
C. Higher number of available component choices
D. Lower cost
E. Enhanced security
Answer: AB

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NO.11 Which of the following is the BEST recovery method for a server that only aggregates report data and
stores data on separate servers?
A. Full
B. Disk imaging
C. Incremental
D. Tape backup
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide iSCSI SAN
connectivity?
A. HBA
B. PBX
C. VoIP
D. NIC
Answer: D

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NO.13 A stripe set of maximum size is to be configured using two physical disks. One disk has 150GB and the
other has 250GB in unallocated space. Which of the following will be the size of the stripe set.?
A. 150GB
B. 300GB
C. 400GB
D. 500GB
Answer: B

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NO.14 A company utilizes the GFS backup standard. Which of the following describes this backup method?
A. Greatest, Final, Sequential
B. Full, Partial, Incremental
C. Monthly, Weekly, Daily
D. Full, Differential, Incremental
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following technologies allows multiple logical subnets to span an entire physical switched
network?
A. ARP
B. DMZ
C. VLAN
D. VPN
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following BEST describes how server virtualization can cut down IT costs?
A. Server virtualization increases server application performance allowing productivity to be increased.
B. Server virtualization simplifies server administration and reduces the IT department staffing needs.
C. Server virtualization implements higher security measures at the server OS level reducing the need for
other security implementations.
D. Server virtualization is a more efficient use of hardware for multiple servers reducing the resource
utilization.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following is a benefit of NAS over SAN?
A. Higher data integrity
B. Lower cost of implementation
C. Higher redundancy
D. Increased performance
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following BEST describes server virtualization?
A. A single logical server operating on multiple physical servers.
B. Applications hosted on a single server and deployed to multiple users.
C. Multiple servers used to host applications for multiple users.
D. Multiple logical servers operating on the same physical server.
Answer: D

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NO.19 A technician has a current baseline and is told to install additional memory and a faster NIC card. At
which point in time should the next baseline be run?
A. After the memory is installed
B. Before the upgrade is performed
C. After the NIC is installed
D. After the upgrades are performed
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following is the MOST important consideration before making a change to a server?
A. Explore the ramification of the change before implementation.
B. Determine the service level agreement in place before implementation.
C. Review the equipment disposal procedures and policies before implementation.
D. Notify all staff members of the planned system outage before implementation.
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: SY0-301
시험 이름: CompTIA (Security+ Certification Exam 2011 version)
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Q&A: 587 문항
업데이트: 2014-01-19

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NO.1 Sara, an IT administrator, wants to protect a cluster of servers in a DMZ from zero day attacks. Which
of the following would provide the BEST level of protection?
A. NIPS
B. NIDS
C. ACL
D. Antivirus
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following authentication protocols forces centralized wireless authentication?
A. WPA2-Personal
B. WPA2-Enterprise
C. WPA2-CCMP
D. WPA2-TKIP
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is similar to a smurf attack, but uses UDP instead to ICMP?
A. X-Mas attack
B. Fraggle attack
C. Vishing
D. Man-in-the-middle attack
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is the BEST solution to securely administer remote servers?
A. SCP
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. SFTP
Answer: B

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NO.5 Pete, a security administrator, wants to secure remote telnet services and decides to use the services
over SSH. Which of the following ports should Pete allow on the firewall by default?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 25
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following accurately describes the STRONGEST multifactor authentication?
A. Something you are, something you have
B. Something you have, something you know
C. Something you are near to, something you have
D. Something you have, someone you know
Answer: A

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NO.7 Social networking sites are used daily by the marketing team for promotional purposes. However,
confidential company information, including product pictures and potential partnerships, have been
inadvertently exposed to the public by dozens of employees using social networking sites. Which of
following is the BEST response to mitigate this threat with minimal company disruption?
A. Mandate additional security awareness training for all employees.
B. Report each employee to Human Resources for termination for violation of security policies
C. Implement a data loss prevention program to filter email.
D. Block access to social networking sites from the corporate network
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following risks could IT management be mitigating by removing an all-in-one device?
A. Continuity of operations
B. Input validation
C. Single point of failure
D. Single sign on
Answer: C

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NO.9 Sara and Jane, users, are reporting an increase in the amount of unwanted email that they are receiving
each day.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to respond to this issue without creating a lot of
administrative overhead.?
A. Deploy an anti-spam device to protect the network.
B. Update the anti-virus definitions and make sure that it is set to scan all received email
C. Set up spam filtering rules in each user's mail client.
D. Change the firewall settings to block SMTP relays so that the spam cannot get in.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following BEST allows Pete, a security administrator, to determine the type, source, and
flags of the packet traversing a network for troubleshooting purposes?
A. Switches
B. Protocol analyzers
C. Routers
D. Web security gateways
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following inspects traffic entering or leaving a network to look for anomalies against
expected baselines?
A. IPS
B. Sniffers
C. Stateful firewall
D. Stateless firewall
Answer: A

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NO.12 A computer is put into a restricted VLAN until the computer's virus definitions are up-to-date. Which of
the following BEST describes this system type?
A. NAT
B. NIPS
C. NAC
D. DMZ
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is an example of a false negative?
A. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow
B. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware.
C. Anti-virus protection interferes with the normal operation of an application.
D. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following encrypts the body of a packet, rather than just the password, while sending
information?
A. LDAP
B. TACACS+
C. ACLs
D. RADIUS
Answer: B

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NO.15 The fundamental information security principals include confidentiality, availability and which of the
following?
A. The ability to secure data against unauthorized disclosure to external sources
B. The capacity of a system to resist unauthorized changes to stored information
C. The confidence with which a system can attest to the identity of a user
D. The characteristic of a system to provide uninterrupted service to authorized users
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following BEST describes a software vulnerability that is actively being used by Sara and
Jane, attackers, before the vendor releases a protective patch or update?
A. Buffer overflow
B. IV attack
C. Zero day attack
D. LDAP injection
Answer: C

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NO.17 A company is performing internal security audits after a recent exploitation on one of their proprietary
applications. Sara, the security auditor, is given the workstation with limited documentation regarding the
application installed for the audit. Which of the following types of testing methods is this?
A. Sandbox
B. White box
C. Black box
D. Gray box
Answer: D

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NO.18 A company has sent all of its private keys to a third party. The third party company has created a
secure list of these keys. Which of the following has just been implemented?
A. Key escrow
B. CRL
C. CA
D. Recovery agent
Answer: A

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NO.19 Sara, a security analyst, discovers which operating systems the client devices on the network are
running by only monitoring a mirror port on the router. Which of the following techniques did Sara use?
A. Active fingerprinting
B. Passive finger printing
C. Protocol analyzing
D. Network enumerating
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following is a valid server-role in a Kerberos authentication system?
A. Token issuing system
B. Security assertion server
C. Authentication agent
D. Ticket granting server
Answer: D

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