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시험 번호/코드: ST0-099
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 9.0(STS))
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Q&A: 97 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 Which information is held in the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) Directory Database?
A. archived items
B. configuration data for an EV 9 site
C. configuration information of indexed data
D. storage location of single instanced items
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are two benefits of enabling Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) for Outlook Web
Access users? (Select two.)
A. offloads Archiving Task from EV 9 server
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. enables remote access to archived public folder items
D. extracts mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV 9 services
Answer: B, C

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NO.3 An organization is debating which Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook client to deploy
to end users. Which two features can be used if the HTTP-only Outlook Add-In is deployed? (Select two.)
A. Users can choose which archives to store items in.
B. Users can restore items to the Restored Items folder.
C. Users can use Vault Cache.
D. Users can cancel Pending Items.
E. Users can store and classify items with retention categories.
Answer: C, D

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NO.4 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. In order to perform a point-in-time recovery of the database, what must be backed up daily?
A. the EnterpriseVaultDirectory SQL database
B. the SQL transaction logs
C. the SQL databases
D. the EnterpriseVaultAuditing SQL database
Answer: B

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NO.5 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. The administrator has yet to run a backup of the vault store partition. The administrator has
Safety Copy enabled for the Vault Store. Given that the administrator has already performed some
mailbox archiving, what should occur after running the backup for the first time and clearing the archive
bit?
A. The safety copies are removed from the Exchange store.
B. The safety copies are removed from the storage queues.
C. The safety copies are flagged for removal for the next Storage Expiry.
D. The safety copies are flagged for removal when the services are restarted.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which task needs to be running for a PST Client-Driven Migration to be successful?
A. PST Client Task
B. PST Locator Task
C. PST Migrator Task
D. PST Collector Task
Answer: C

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NO.7 An organization needs to move all PST files into Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9).
Their users require constant access to their PST files during the migration. What is the recommended
migration method?
A. Client-Driven PST Migration
B. Locate and Migrate PST Migration
C. PST Migration Wizard
D. EVPM Scripted Migration
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the minimum version of the .NET framework required on the Enterprise Vault Server for
Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange?
A. .NET 4.0
B. .NET 3.5 SP1
C. .NET 1.1 and 2.0
D. .NET 2.0 and 3.0 SP2
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are two physical data storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for
Exchange? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store Group
D. Vault Store Partitions
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: A, D

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NO.10 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. On which context menu in the Vault Admin Console does the administrator set and clear the
vault store backup mode?
A. the Enterprise Vault database
B. the Enterprise Vault services
C. the Enterprise Vault server
D. the Enterprise Vault site
Answer: D

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NO.11 An administrator is setting up Exchange managed folders and needs to apply the same retention
settings to Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Which action needs to happen to force EV 9
to synchronize the managed folder retentions?
A. in Desktop Folder policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to
Normal
B. in Desktop policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
C. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
D. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Normal
Answer: C

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NO.12 An organization enables Outlook Anywhere (RPC over HTTP) for mobile users so users can retrieve
archived email through Outlook without being connected to a VPN. When end users who use this new
functionality try to restore an item, they are no longer prompted for where they want the item to be
restored. What is the reason for this change in behavior?
A. The system administrator has disabled custom restore locations in the policy.
B. The Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Add-In is using HTTP-only functionality.
C. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable User Extensions.
D. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable Offline Vault.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Provided that appropriate options are set for users, which two actions can users perform on the Details
tab of the Vault Cache Properties dialog box? (Select two.)
A. view header and content synchronization status
B. start synchronization
C. disable synchronization
D. reverse synchronization
E. edit header and content synchronization categories
Answer: A, B

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NO.14 A company is considering Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange for archiving their Exchange
systems. Personnel at the company are having trouble understanding the differences between their
existing backup environment and a separate archiving environment. Which two differentiate archiving
from a backup system? (Select two.)
A. provides retention periods for individual sets of data
B. requires operator intervention to perform a data restore request
C. provides duplicate copies for disaster recovery purposes
D. ingests data from the Exchange store to the archive storage layer
E. enables fast restore capabilities for mission critical data
Answer: A, D

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NO.15 Which feature delegation must be set to Read/Write in Internet Information Services (IIS 7.0) before
installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Web Access (OWA) Extensions?
A. .NET Trust Levels
B. .NET Roles
C. Failed Request Tracing Rules
D. IPv4 Address and Domain Restrictions
Answer: D

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NO.16 An administrator is installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Where should the
administrator place the EV 9 databases and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.17 An administrator needs to migrate a large number of PST files located in users' Outlook profiles and on
a shared drive. Which two PST migration methods will accomplish this? (Select two.)
A. Client-Driven Migration
B. Server-Driven Migration
C. PST Migration Wizard
D. Locate-Migrate Wizard
E. Automatic Migration
Answer: A, B

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NO.18 A large enterprise organization requires Enterprise Vault Operations Manager. The company will have
five Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) sites and three EV Directories. How many
monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.19 Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange converts mail message attachments to text or HTML. What
is a benefit of changing the default conversion type to text instead of HTML for certain document types
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. increases the performance of searching
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

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NO.20 Refer to the exhibit.
On the Exchange Policy Properties page, which two items will be archived using the policy shown in the
exhibit? (Select two.)
A.all items older than four weeks
B. all items larger than 1 MB
C. all items older than four weeks and larger than 1 MB
D. all items older than three months
E. all items older than four weeks and smaller than 1 MB
Answer: C, D

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-100
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Domino Technical)
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
일년동안 무료 업데이트
100% 환불보장약속
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Q&A: 132 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 Which two are prerequisites for installing Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) Reporting? (Select two.)
A. grant dbreader rights in Microsoft SQL server to the default EV Domino Admin role
B. install Microsoft Active Server Pages .NET 3.0 SP3 on the EV server
C. install Microsoft SQL Reporting Services on the SQL Reporting server
D. give the Vault Service Account the Content Manager role on the Microsoft SQL Reporting server
E. add the Vault Service Account to the Local Administrators group on the SQL Reporting server
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Which two SQL databases are directly associated with storage in Symantec Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are two primary physical data-storage components of Domino Mailbox Archiving in
Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. IIS configuration data
E. Shopping Basket
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Implementation of Symantec Enterprise Vault follows a specific sequential process after prerequisites
are met. The first three steps in this process include: run the Deployment Scanner, run the Software Install,
and run the Configuration Wizard. What is the fourth step in the process?
A. run the Domino Configuration Wizard
B. run the Getting Started Wizard
C. run the Archiving Configuration Wizard
D. run the Provisioning Wizard
E. run the Storage Configuration Wizard
Answer: B

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NO.5 Symantec Enterprise Vault sites are grouped under which Symantec Enterprise Vault container?
A. Directory
B. Targets
C. Archives
D. Domains
Answer: C

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NO.6 After running the Symantec Enterprise Vault Configuration Wizard, which of these services are running
when viewed from the Vault Administration Console? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Vault Indexing Service
B. Enterprise Vault Administration Service
C. Enterprise Vault Directory Service
D. Enterprise Vault Domino Archiving Service
E. Enterprise Vault Task Controller Service
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 Which two of the following are created by the Symantec Enterprise Vault Configuration wizard? (Select
two.)
A. Index locations
B. Vault Directory database
C. Services on the Enterprise Vault server
D. Domino archives
E. Vault store databases
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Which process requires that the Enterprise Vault Domino Gateway (EVDG) be installed in the
environment?
A. Mailfile archiving
B. Lotus Notes access to archived items
C. Enterprise Vault Administrator access to Domino configuration
D. Journal archiving
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100   ST0-100자격증

NO.9 Which two additions are made to the notes.ini of the Symantec Enterprise Vault Domino Gateway
(EVDG) server after installing Symantec Enterprise Vault? (Select two.)
A. ServerTasks=EVDominoHousekeeping
B. ServerTasks=EVDominoEM
C. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoEM.dll
D. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoHousekeeping.dll
E. ExtMgr_Addins=EVDominoHousekeeping
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 A company will have five Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) sites and three EV Directories. How many
Monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which connection type is used to archive messages from mail files?
A. IMAP
B. NRPC
C. MAPI
D. SMTP
Answer: B

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NO.12 A user is unable to log in to search the archived mail. Which step can be taken to correct the problem?
A. re-enable the mailbox
B. refresh the design
C. reset the Internet password
D. reset the Domino password
Answer: C

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NO.13 What should be done before running the Enterprise Vault Reports Configuration tool?
A. create the Enterprise Vault Reporting SQL database
B. stop IIS
C. add the Vault Service Account to the DomainAdmins group
D. create an ordinary Active Directory user account to be used by Enterprise Vault Reporting
Answer: D

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NO.14 What tool can be installed to check that all pre-requisites have been correctly configured?
A. Enterprise Vault Compatibility Checker
B. Enterprise Vault Deployment Scanner
C. SystemCheck.exe
D. Microsoft System Information tool
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which action is necessary to run DTrace from within the Vault Administration Console?
A. enable Traces from the Site Properties
B. enable debug from the Site Properties
C. install DTrace.exe on the Symantec Enterprise Vault server
D. enable Advanced Features
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two Symantec Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company
to maintain information? (Select two.)
A. data compression
B. collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. storage on WORM devices
E. item conversion to HTML
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 Did you participate in formal Symantec training for this exam? If so, please select the type of training
that you completed. (Select all that apply.)
A. Instructor-led classroom
B. Virtual instructor-led classroom
C. eLearning / web-based training
D. Symantec-hosted webcast
E. Distributor or reseller-hosted webcast
F. Field / Real-world experience
G. Other
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 When the Deployment Scanner is used for troubleshooting a Symantec Enterprise Vault
environment, which two of these tests are performed? (Select two.)
A. mail file permissions
B. Domino server permissions
C. registry settings
D. Domino server versions
E. Domino template versions
Answer: C,D

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NO.19 What are two reasons for adopting Symantec Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content?
(Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: B,C

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NO.20 What is a benefit of archiving Domino user mail files?
A. makes email highly available
B. provides a compliance copy of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-090
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec control compliance suite 10.0)
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NO.1 A Control Compliance Suite 10.0 user schedules a Policy Acceptance report. After the Report job
finishes, the user opens the results and receives the message: 'No data available to generate this report.'
The user is sure that certain people have already accepted policies this morning. What should the user do
in order to get the data in the report?
A. run the Report Generation job again
B. run the Policy and Mandates Metrics Computation job
C. run the Report Data Purge job
D. run the Report Data Synchronization job
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are two available formats for exporting reports from the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Reporting
and Analytics Console? (Select two.)
A. Comma Separated Values (CSV)
B. Portable Document Format (PDF)
C. Crystal Reports (RPT)
D. Microsoft PowerPoint (PPT)
E. Microsoft Access (MDB)
Answer: B, C

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NO.3 An administrator troubleshooting the Symantec Control Compliance system notices that both the
Application server and the Directory server failed to start. The administrator verifies that Windows started
normally on the two servers. What is the next step the administrator should take?
A. verify that the Active Directory server is running
B. ping the load balancer from the Application server
C. verify that the Information server is running
D. verify internet access from the Directory server
Answer: D

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NO.4 The Response Assessment Module Web Service application pool account must be a member of which
group?
A. Administrators
B. IIS_WPG
C. RAM_Administrators
D. Distributed COM Users
Answer: B

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NO.5 When an administrator of Control Compliance Suite 10.0 views the results of an evaluation against a
standard, both the risk score and the compliance score are high. How can these evaluation results be
explained?
A. Multiple sections contain failures.
B. The risk score tracks critical failures.
C. Many exceptions have been approved.
D. The compliance score tracks informational items.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A Standards Evaluation has completed and is ready to be viewed. What are two view options.? (Select
two.)
A. Risk-based view
B. Compliance-based view
C. Asset-based view
D. Failure-based view
E. Standard-based view
Answer: C, E

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NO.7 Which database do the dashboards pull data from?
A. Production database
B. Reporting database
C. Evidence database
D. Master database
Answer: B

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NO.8 Within an evaluation result, the status 'Unknown' is primarily defined with which check setting?
A. missing data items
B. heck ex ression
C. precondition
D. post-processing expression
Answer: A

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NO.9 An administrator wants to ensure that issues flagged as out of compliance are addressed as efficiently
as possible. The administrator wants to trigger the remediation process. Where is the remediation option
set?
A. within the Evaluation Job Wizard
B. within the Standard specification
C. on the Asset Properties page
D. on the Reporting page
Answer: A

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NO.10 What must be done before the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 can use a newly installed Data
Processing Service (DPS)?
A. synchronize settings on all registered DPS hosts
B. register the DPS with the Application server
C. set all values of the common fields with reconciliation rules
D. import primary assets
Answer: B

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NO.11 Asset Import jobs from a particular site are running more slowly than Asset Import jobs from other sites.
What is the most likely cause?
A. The Application server service is untrusted for delegation.
B. One of the DPS Collectors from the site has failed.
C. The Reporting Database Synchronization job has failed.
D. Service Principal Names (SPNs) are configured incorrectly.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which Control Compliance Suite component automates the analysis of procedural controls?
A. Standards Module
B. Entitlements Module
C. Policy Module
D. Response Assessment Module
Answer: D

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NO.13 A single Data Processing Service (DPS) Reporter is assigned to perform database synchronization
between which two databases? (Select two.)
A. Reporting database
B. Evidence database
C. Credentials database
D. Production database
E. Master database
Answer: A, D

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NO.14 Which two actions can be taken on a predefined report in the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Console?
(Select two.)
A. Move
B. Delete
C. Copy
D. Export Report Template
E. Paste
Answer: C, D

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NO.15 A Data Collection job fails for a Windows machine in Control Compliance Suite 10.0 (CCS). All
components appear to have been correctly installed and configured in the console. What is an initial step
to take outside of the CCS Console (Reporting and Analytics) to troubleshoot the issue?
A. restart Symantec RMS Process Manager
B. run a bv-Control for Windows query
C. recreate the Credentials database
D. verify the Enterprise Configuration Service
Answer: B

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NO.16 In terms of securing systems and configurations, Control Compliance Suite 10.0 performs which two
functions? (Select two.)
A. performs event correlation on security logs
B. identifies high risk systems and configurations
C. scans content of servers for confidential information
D. provides guidance for and measures effectiveness against industry standards
E. proactively blocks threats from penetrating critical systems
Answer: B, D

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NO.17 Which two statements accurately describe the purpose of the Control Compliance Suite Production
database? (Select two.)
A. It stores the data that is collected from the assets.
B. It stores data specific to individual dashboards.
C. It stores the results of evaluation jobs.
D. It stores data specific to individual reports.
E. It stores evidence gathered from the extended evidence sources.
Answer: A, C

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NO.18 In order to use Response Assessment Module results as policy evidence in Control Compliance Suite
(CCS), which two statements are correct? (Select two.)
A. The policy and question must be mapped to the same control statement.
B. The same CCS asset must be part of the policy and the questionnaire.
C. The questionnaire and policy evaluation must be performed simultaneously.
D. The Content Studio must be mapped to the RAM server.
E. The user must be assigned the data owner role to validate the result.
Answer: A, B

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NO.19 Which function of Control Compliance Suite 10.0 is responsible for generating tiered dashboards?
A. DPS Evaluator
B. DPS Reporter
C. Application server
D. Directory server
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is required for the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Application server and Directory server
components to support Kerberos authentication in an Active Directory environment?
A. username and password
B. configured PKI certificates
C. configured Service Principal Names (SPNs)
D. successful sync configuration
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: ASC-094
시험 이름: Symantec (ASC Storage Management Assessment)
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NO.1 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with srlprot attribute set to autodcm. In
the event that the SRL overflows, what will happen?
A. VVR will delay any further writes to the primary node until the SRL has drained below the
low-watermark threshold
B. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR then
automatically replicates writes tracked by the DCM.
C. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR stops and the
DCM must be replayed manually.
D. VVR stops replicating and writes in the SRL are converted into DCM logging. The DCM must then be
replayed manually.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer has two identical servers that support an OLTP database and billing application, respectively.
Each night they run a batch job to create a full Volume Manager snapshot of their OLTP database, which
is then imported and mounted on the other server to support the billing application. The customer has
asked an administrator to upgrade the version of Storage Foundation on the OLTP server to version 5.1.
Which action should be taken when performing this upgrade?
A. Upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries, diskgroups, and filesystems on the OLTP server and advise
the customer to upgrade their billing system to the same version of Storage Foundation software.
B. Inform the customer that they must upgrade the OLTP and Billing servers at the same time.
C. Modify the Storage Foundation configuration to use space-saving snapshots instead of full snapshots.
D. Only upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries on the OLTP server, do not upgrade the diskgroup and
filesystem versions until after the Billing server has been upgraded.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two capabilities of Symantec Common Product Installer (CPI) are not supported by the
web-based installer for Storage Foundation 5.1? (Select two.)
A. installing Storage Foundation
B. uninstalling Storage Foundation
C. upgrading Storage Foundation
D. configuring Storage Foundation for Oracle RAC (SFRAC)
E. adding license keys for Storage Foundation
Answer: C, D

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NO.4 Which two components should ordinarily be configured within a Relicated Volume Group (RVG)?
(Select two.)
A. SRL
B. RDS
C. DCM
D. Diskgroup
E. Rlink
Answer: A, C

Symantec   ASC-094   ASC-094기출문제   ASC-094

NO.5 In which order must the tasks be performed to initially synchronize VVR replication using
checkpoints? .
Start replication using vradmin -c checkpoint startrep . Run "vxrvg -c checkpoint
checkstart" . Run "vxrvg checkend" . Perform a block-level backup at the primary . Restore raw backup at
the secondary
A. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2
B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
C. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
D. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
Answer: C

Symantec기출문제   ASC-094   ASC-094

NO.6 Why is it important to upgrade Storage Foundation diskgroups and filesystem versions after upgrading
the version of software on a system?
A. Storage Foundation will be unable to access the files residing on diskgroups and filesystems that have
an older version than the binaries.
B. Older diskgroup and filesystem versions are only supported during a rolling upgrade.
C. Upgrading the diskgroup and filesystem versions will enable the full capabilities of the product to be
deployed.
D. It eliminates warnings being sent to the console due to the out-of-date diskgroup and filesystem
versions.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with the srlprot attribute set to override.
If there is an SRL overflow while the RLINK is connected, what happens to the running application issuing
writes.?
A. Application continues, and VVR overflows the SRL.
B. Application is blocked until SRL drains 5% or 20 megabytes, whichever is smaller.
C. Application is blocked until the RLINK is automatically detached after AutoDetach seconds have
elapsed.
D. Application continues, and VVR is automatically converted to DCM logging.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You have been asked to review a customer's VVR configuration, and found that the Rlink has the
following attributes: srlprot=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps What is the risk to the customer's
application if the SRL overflows?
A. Application writes will be stalled which may cause the front-end application to fail or hang.
B. The bandwidth_limit will be increased so the SRL can drain, and this may overload the network and
cause application performance problems.
C. The size of the SRL will be increased, leaving less space if the application volumes need to be
extended.
D. VVR will start to use the DCM, which requires a replay of the DCM, during which, Write Order Fidelity
for the application data is lost.
Answer: A

Symantec   ASC-094   ASC-094

NO.9 A customer has Veritas Volume Replication (VVR) version 5.1 with the following Rlink attributes:
synchronous=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps Which statement is true?
A. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, then the
bandwidth_limit attribute will be overridden to try and maintain a synchronous copy of the data at the
secondary site.
B. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, it will
automatically fall-back to asynchronous mode to enable replication within the defined bandwidth limits.
C. VVR will throttle the write operations on the primary server in order to replicate the data
synchronously to the secondary site within the bandwidth limits. In the event of a network failure VVR will
fallback to asynchronous replication mode and the write operations on the primary server will no longer be
throttled, but the bandwidth for replicating to the secondary site will still be limited.
D. The bandwidth_limit attribute does not apply to synchronous replication, however in the event that the
rLink falls back to asynchronous mode the data will then be replicated within the defined bandwidth limits.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are the limitations when upgrading CVM and CFS to version 5.1?
A. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the same versions of software; rolling upgrades
with mixed versions of software are only supported from 5.1 onwards.
B. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the latest MP for the current version prior to the
upgrade to 5.1.
C. Rolling upgrades can only be performed from version 5.0 to 5.1; rolling upgrades from 4.1 are not
supported
D. Rolling upgrades can only be performed if the diskgroup and filesystem versions remain unchanged
until all of the systems have been upgraded to the same version of software
Answer: A

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NO.1 How does HP TippingPoint provide filter updates?
A. TippingPoint Operating System
B. IGRP
C. Digital vaccine
D. Hot Patch Install
Answer: C

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NO.2 The TippingPoint IPS Command Line Interface (CLI) is accessed using which protocol?
A. SNTP
B. VoIP
C. TOS
D. SSH
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which value is required during the IPS OBE process?
A. filter changes
B. serial number
C. TOS version number
D. security level
Answer: C

HP   HP2-N29 pdf   HP2-N29   HP2-N29

NO.4 A TippingPoint Operating System (TOS) can be downloaded from which website?
A. TOS.tippingpoint.com
B. TMC.tippingpoint.com
C. HTC.tippingpoint.com
D. SMC.tippingpoint.com
Answer: B

HP   HP2-N29   HP2-N29자료

NO.5 What is the default user access granted when creating a new local user on the IPS?
A. Operator
B. SuperUser
C. Undefined
D. Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which statement about SATA technology is correct?
A. SAS hard drives can be connected to a SATA controller.
B. SATA hard drives can be connected directly to a SCSI controller.
C. SATA hard drives can be connected to a SAS controller.
D. SATA hard drives can be installed in a daisy chain configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which operating system is supported by HP on HP desktop PCs?
A. Ubuntu Linux
B. Windows Server 2008
C. Windows Vista
D. Windows 2000
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which function does the Wireless LAN 802.11 n standard provide?
A. uses the same antenna to receive and transmit simultaneously
B. operates in the 2.4GHz frequency range only
C. uses two or more transmitter and receiver antennas
D. provides more security features than 802.11
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which HP product line is best suited for a customer who uses a manufacturing computer-aided design
program?
A. HP Tablet
B. HP TouchSmart PC
C. HP Mini Notebook
D. HP Personal Workstation
Answer: C

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NO.5 The maximum amount of usable RAM in Microsoft Vista is limited by which factors? (Select two.)
A. processor manufacturer
B. SyStem chipset
C. operating system
D. memory drivers
E. hard drive capacity
Answer: B,C

HP   HP2-H01   HP2-H01   HP2-H01

NO.6 Which statement is true about HP thin clients?
A. They run Linux operating systems only.
B. They have no system BIOS.
C. They use an embedded operating system.
D. They have no network functionality.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which HP product supports a RAID 5 configuration?
A. notebook
B. desktop workstation
C. slimline desktop
D. mobile workstation
Answer: B

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NO.8 What does HP QuickLook enable you to do?
A. access your Outlook data even if your device is in hibernate mode or powered off
B. access HP technical data or support information on the Internet
C. view the contents of a system folder without opening that folder
D. view the complete system information relating to your notebook
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer complains that the HP QuickLook 2 feature is not working on their notebook running
Windows Vista. Which application must be installed to support this feature?
A. HP Assistant
B. Microsoft Aero
C. HP Help and Support
D. Microsoft Office
Answer: D

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NO.10 What must you do to optimize the performance of a 64-bit processor?
A. Install 64-bit compatible RAM.
B. Enable bit control in the BIOS.
C. Use a 64-bit operating system.
D. Install faster system memory.
Answer: C

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NO.11 HP Disk Sanitizei (Shredder) is part of which HP security suite?
A. SecurityTools
B. ProtectTools
C. DefenclTools
D. SafeGuarclTools
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which range of colors does the HP DreamColor display?
A. more than 1 billion colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
B. more than 10 billion colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
C. up to 1 million colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
D. up to 10 million colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the difference between SATA and eSATA?
A. SATA has more drive options.
B. eSATA uses an external port.
C. SATA has lower power consumption.
D. eSATA uses a faster bus speed.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the difference between a frontside bus (FSB) and Intel QuickPath?
A. QuickPath connects the memory controller to the I/O controller; FSB connects the CPU to the chipset.
B. QuickPath is a peripheral data bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
C. QuickPath is a graphics controller bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
D. QuickPath provides faster CPU data transfer speeds than the FSB.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which HP option contains an integrated hard drive?
A. Mobile Expansion Unit (MEU)
B. 3-in-1 NAS Port Replicator
C. Simple Port Replicator
D. Advanced Port Replicator
Answer: B

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NO.16 HOTSPOT
Click the part of the graphic that identifies the Mobile PCI eXpress Module (MXM) card.
Answer:

NO.17 What is the primary function of MXM graphics modules in portables?
A. provides the ability to use scalable link interface (SLI) graphic processors
B. allows the graphics processor to be easily upgraded
C. provides high-definition hardware support
D. allows an embedded video chipset installation
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the main function of a DisplayPort to DVI Adapter?
A. to convert the output of a graphics card from VGA to DVI
B. to convert DisplayPort output to DVI for use with a Single Link DVI-D monitor
C. to enable 3D graphics to be rendered more clearly on a CRT monitor
D. to enable S-Video support in order to view HDTV content
Answer: D

HP   HP2-H01   HP2-H01   HP2-H01   HP2-H01

NO.19 What is a benefit of HP DieamColor technology?
A. It automatically locates and hides defective pixels by changing their color.
B. It allows the use of a digitizer for point-and-click display functionality.
C. It produces consistent color across digital devices and applications.
D. It adjusts the color of the display according to the external light sources.
Answer: C

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NO.20 A monitor is moved to a new computer. Upon power-up the screen message Theft Mode Enabled
displays. How can you restore the monitor to normal operation.? (Select two.)
A. Obtain the master PIN from the system administrator.
B. Disable the Theft Mode in HP Display Utility.
C. Enter the PIN in HP Display Assistant Utility.
D. Return the monitor to original computer and disable Theft Mode.
E. Press and hold the reset button on the back of the monitor.
Answer: B,D

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시험 번호/코드: HP2-B88
시험 이름: HP (HP Web Jetadmin Printer Fleet Management Technical)
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일년동안 무료 업데이트
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Q&A: 60 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 What could provide additional security features to a printer?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPV2
C. HP Web Jetadmin Supplies Alerts
D. the latest device firmware version
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which is a connectionless, transport layer-based protocol?
A. UDP
B. UPD
C. HTTTP
D. TCP
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are community names?
A. a form of authentication for SNMP communication
B. a form of status information for SNMP communication
C. a form of encryption for SNMP communication
D. a form of password protection for SNMP communication
Answer: A

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NO.4 What determines the extent to which HP Web Jetadmin can manage third-party printers.?
A. WMI
B. DMI
C. MIB
D. SNMP
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which applications can be used in conjunction with SNMP? (Select three.)
A. HP Proprietary Postscript Print Driver
B. HP Open View
C. HP Fleet Manager
D. IBM Tivoli
E. HP Systems Insight Manager
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.6 What is getbulk?
A. an enhanced version of SNMPv1 trap
B. a method of retrieving large blocks of data
C. a method of notification that the trap has been received
D. a security feature within firmware
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which technologies does HP Web Jetadmin use for the client interface?
A. Java and SmartClient
B. Java and Web client
C. .NET framework and SmartClient
D. Web client and .NET remoting
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which commands apply to SNMPv2?
A. set and getnext
B. getbulk and inform
C. trap and set
D. trap and getnext
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is an SNMPV3 (full/ configured) communication between the HP Web Jetadmin installation and
the managed device?
A. an encrypted text transmission only
B. an encrypted and authenticated text transmission
C. an unencrypted text transmission only
D. an unencrypted and authenticated text transmission
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which statement is true about HP Web Jetadmin plug-ins?
A. Plug-ins are hardware modules that can be added to an HP LaserJet.
B. Plug-ins are special scripts that can be sent to the printer by HP Web Jetadmin.
C. Plug-ins are DIMMs that add functionality to the printer when accessed by HP Web Jetadmin.
D. Plug-ins are software packages that add extra functionality to the HP Web Jetadmin application
Answer: D

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